When a person claims that The Bible is "crystal clear" about any position, what actually becomes crystal clear is that the person is interpretting the text in such a specific way that it supports their bias.

Regarding the term eunuch, I'm wondering what Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek word was used in the original inscriptions. Knowing the original language and its definition in the context of the times could shed some light on the intent of Vs. 11-12. I mean, I'm queer and I've met a whole lot of queer men... and every one of them has had at least one testicle. Just sayin'.